Why is it easy to get one empty cart moving but difficult to get a line of 20 empty carts moving?
Also question is, why does it take more force to accelerate a full grocery cart than an empty one?
The law describes that the less mass an object has, the greater the acceleration. This can be related to the shopping carts. If a person pushes two carts, one empty and one full of groceries, with the same force, the empty cart will travel farther and accelerate more compared to the full cart.
Also, which ball has the greatest inertia? Clearly the bowling ball, so we say that the bowling ball has a higher inertia than the tennis ball. A classic demonstration of inertia is as follows. inertia. The amount of inertia depends on how much stuff (or matter) is inside an object.
Keeping this in view, how will the same amount of force affect a tennis ball and a bowling ball differently?
On the other hand, and to answer your question, if you apply the same force to both balls, then it follows that the tennis ball would accelerate faster than the bowling ball because it has a smaller mass than the bowling ball.
What has more inertia a hammer or feather?
Thus it will fall faster than a less massive object. Galileo accounted for the inertia of falling objects. So although the lead ball would be heavier than a wooden ball of the same size, it would also have more inertia. One argument against Galileo was what one could plainly see when one drops a hammer and a feather.