Why is the MR curve below the demand curve for monopoly?
Keeping this in view, why does a monopoly have a downward demand curve?
The monopolist faces the downward-sloping market demand curve, so the price that the monopolist can get for each additional unit of output must fall as the monopolist increases its output. The downward-sloping market demand curve indicates that the new market price will be lower than before.
Additionally, why MR is below AR in Monopoly?
The truth is that MR is less than p or AR in monopoly. This is so because p must be lowered to sell an extra unit. In contrast, the monopoly firm is faced with a negatively sloped demand curve. So, it has to reduce its p to be able to sell more units.
-pure monopolist is downsloping because the firm's supply is so small a part of the total industry supply that it cannot affect the price. -perfectly inelastic because MR < MC when demand is inelastic, so the price would be falling. -perfectly inelastic because MR is negative when demand is inelastic, so MR = MC < 0.