Is first degree price discrimination efficient?
Keeping this in consideration, is first degree price discrimination Pareto efficient?
1st degree price discrimination occurs when each good is sold to the consumer with the highest reservation price for it. So 1st degree price discrimination is Pareto efficient because the only way to make consumers better off (increase consumer surplus) is to make producers worse off (decrease producer surplus).
Secondly, what is 1st degree price discrimination?
First-degree price discrimination, alternatively known as perfect price discrimination, occurs when a firm charges a different price for every unit consumed. The firm is able to charge the maximum possible price for each unit which enables the firm to capture all available consumer surplus for itself.
Price Discrimination occurs when a firm sells a good or service to different buyers at two or more different prices, for reasons not necessarily associated with cost.